OK. So we've covered over and over how CO2 has been shown not to be the drive in increased global temps, but that increases in global CO2 FOLLOW increases in global temp. Then there's the fact that the data pushing the IPCC has been shown to have been tweaked by people at the UK college of East Anglia. Yet, thanks to members of the Supreme Court who don't challenge real assumptions, the EPA is now ready to regulate CO2 emissions. They won't need a Congressional bill; they won't need a "treaty", they can just... do it, as Nike said years ago.

So, why is it that the Supreme Court didn't bother glancing at this little clause in the Constitution that prohibits Congress from delegating any of it's constitutional powers? And why didn't the members of the Supreme Court note that the Interstate Commerce clause (the clause the politicians use all the time to get away with nonsense like this) DOESN'T give Congress the power to regulate GAS IN THE AIR?

The Interstate Commerce Clause was written to prevent states from imposing tariffs on products from other states, plain and simple. This seems to be a biiiiit of a stretch, doesn't it?

http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/34311724/ns/us_news-environment

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